A 68-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up after a recent emergency department visit. Two weeks ago, the patient experienced palpitations and mild dizziness; ECG showed atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. The episode resolved spontaneously in 2 hours, and she has had no symptoms since then. The patient has a history of hypertension treated with valsartan and hydrochlorothiazide. She is a lifetime nonsmoker and does not drink alcohol. Her exercise tolerance is good. Blood pressure is 128/72 mm Hg, and pulse is 74/min and regular. Physical examination is unremarkable. TSH is 1.6, creatinine is 1.1 mg/dL, and fasting glucose is 85 mg/dL. Echocardiography shows preserved left ventricular ejection fraction and no significant valvular abnormalities. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Ambulatory heart rhythm monitoring
B) Amiodarone
C) Apixaban
D) Aspirin
E) Carotid ultrasound
F) Clinical follow-up only
Correct Answer:
Verified
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