A 76-year-old man with coronary artery disease comes to the office for follow-up 6 months after an uncomplicated coronary artery bypass surgery. The exertional chest pain that was bothering the patient before the surgery has completely resolved. He reports no palpitations, shortness of breath, light-headedness, or syncope. The patient has a history of hypertension, diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, and gout. Medications include low-dose aspirin, metoprolol, and rosuvastatin. He has a 30-pack-year smoking history but quit 5 years ago. The patient does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Physical examination shows an irregular pulse. The chest surgical incision is well healed. There are no heart murmurs, and the lungs are clear on auscultation. There is no peripheral edema. ECG obtained in the office is shown in the exhibit. 
Which of the following is the best management for this patient?
A) Atrioventricular nodal slow pathway ablation
B) Atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia
C) Flecainide initiation
D) Oral anticoagulant therapy
E) Routine follow-up in 6 months
Correct Answer:
Verified
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