A 38-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of pain and tingling in her hands. She works as a telemarketer for a local sales and marketing agency and has been having difficulty holding the phone. Review of systems is positive for frequent muscle aches in her arms and legs, constipation, lethargy, and difficulty concentrating at work. The patient has no other medical problems and takes no medication. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 14/min. BMI is 32 kg/m2. On examination, there is numbness in the thumb, index, and middle fingers of both hands. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+ in all 4 extremities. The skin appears doughy and dry at both elbows. Mild edema is present in both ankles. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's hand symptoms?
A) Amyloid accumulation
B) Calcium phosphate deposits
C) Mucinous infiltration
D) Periventricular demyelination
E) Vascular steal phenomenon
Correct Answer:
Verified
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