A 33-year-old man comes to the office due to painful swelling of the right lower eyelid for the past 2 days. He has had no trauma or history of similar symptoms in the past. The patient says he recently visited his niece who was having an upper respiratory tract infection. He has no significant prior medical problems other than occasional episodes of herpes labialis. He is sexually active with his girlfriend who takes oral contraceptives. Temperature is 36.8 C (98.2 F) , blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. Examination of the right eye shows localized swelling along the margin of the lower eyelid with associated erythema and tenderness. There is no conjunctival injection or ocular discharge. Visual acuity is normal, and the left eye appears unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management of this patient's current condition?
A) Erythromycin ointment
B) Incision and curettage
C) Oral doxycycline
D) Topical ganciclovir
E) Warm compress only
Correct Answer:
Verified
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