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A 42-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to Back

Question 114

Multiple Choice

A 42-year-old man comes to the office due to back pain.  Yesterday, the patient was moving furniture when he suddenly had sharp, shooting pain in the lower back and buttocks that radiated down the back of the legs.  He took acetaminophen and rested, but the pain was persistent.  When the patient woke up today, his legs felt numb and weak, and he also had to strain to urinate.  He has no chronic medical conditions and takes no medication.  Vital signs are within normal limits.  Physical examination shows lower lumbar spine tenderness on palpation.  Bilateral lower extremity strength is 4/5, and ankle reflexes are absent bilaterally.  Sensation to touch is decreased in the perineal region and buttocks.  Straight leg raise testing is positive.  Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?


A) Obtain MR imaging of the lumbosacral spine
B) Order plain radiographs of the lumbosacral spine
C) Prescribe nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and resume activity as tolerated
D) Recommend strict bed rest and lumbar support
E) Refer to physical therapy for graduated exercises

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