A 42-year-old man comes to the office due to back pain. Yesterday, the patient was moving furniture when he suddenly had sharp, shooting pain in the lower back and buttocks that radiated down the back of the legs. He took acetaminophen and rested, but the pain was persistent. When the patient woke up today, his legs felt numb and weak, and he also had to strain to urinate. He has no chronic medical conditions and takes no medication. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows lower lumbar spine tenderness on palpation. Bilateral lower extremity strength is 4/5, and ankle reflexes are absent bilaterally. Sensation to touch is decreased in the perineal region and buttocks. Straight leg raise testing is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Obtain MR imaging of the lumbosacral spine
B) Order plain radiographs of the lumbosacral spine
C) Prescribe nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and resume activity as tolerated
D) Recommend strict bed rest and lumbar support
E) Refer to physical therapy for graduated exercises
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q109: A 45-year-old woman comes to the office
Q110: A 32-year-old man arrives at the emergency
Q111: A 38-year-old woman is evaluated in the
Q112: A 19-year-old woman comes to the office
Q113: A 34-year-old male presents to the emergency
Q115: A 19-year-old man comes to the office
Q116: A 38-year-old man is being evaluated for
Q117: A 20-year-old woman comes to the office
Q118: A 73-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q119: A 30-year-old man comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents