A 73-year-old man comes to the emergency department saying, "I can't pee!" The patient has not been able to produce any urine over the past 24 hours and has had lower abdominal discomfort. He reports that his urine flow has been weak for the past year. He has had no fever, weakness, numbness, dysuria, back pain, or hematuria. The patient's other medical conditions include myelodysplastic syndrome, hypertension, and lumbar strain. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.9 C (98.4 F) , blood pressure is 150/110 mm Hg, pulse is 94/min, and respirations are 16/min. The abdomen is soft with lower abdominal tenderness and dullness to percussion. Neurologic examination shows absent Achilles tendon reflexes bilaterally but is otherwise unremarkable. Straight catheterization of the bladder produces 800 mL of urine. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this patient's current condition?
A) Acute inflammation of the prostate
B) Bladder outflow obstruction
C) Detrusor sphincter dyssynergia
D) Poor urethral sphincter function
E) Spinal cord compression
Correct Answer:
Verified
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