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A 67-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to 2

Question 121

Multiple Choice

A 67-year-old man comes to the office due to 2 weeks of intermittent blood in the urine.  He has had no pain, urgency, dysuria, frequency, urethral discharge, or nocturia.  The bleeding is present throughout micturition.  The patient has a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia.  He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years.  He is sexually active.  Temperature is 36.9 C (98.4 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, pulse is 78/min, and respirations are 16/min.  Abdomen is soft and nontender with no masses; bowel sounds are normal.  Rectal examination shows an enlarged prostate with no tenderness, asymmetry, or induration.  Urinalysis shows >50 red blood cells/hpf; there are no leukocytes, casts, or dysmorphic erythrocytes.  Urine cytology shows no abnormal cells.  Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient?


A) Abdominal ultrasound
B) Cystoscopy
C) Prostate-specific antigen level
D) Reassurance and routine follow-up
E) Urine culture

Correct Answer:

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