A 64-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of persistent cough and worsening dyspnea over the last 6 months. The cough is dry, nagging, and present throughout the day. He reports mild dyspnea with exertion, which has become increasingly bothersome. The patient has no chest pain, syncope, orthopnea, or paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. He had an inferior wall myocardial infarction due to right coronary artery occlusion 5 years ago and was treated with a drug-eluting stent. The patient's other medical concerns include a hiatal hernia and hypertension. Medications include aspirin, losartan, atorvastatin, and ranitidine. Temperature is 36.8 C (98.2 F) , blood pressure is 130/78 mm Hg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 15/min. Pulse oximetry is 97% on room air. Head and neck examination is normal. Jugular venous pressure is normal. There are no murmurs, extra sounds, or gallops. Fine, dry inspiratory crackles are heard in the lower lung zones. Diaphragm excursion is normal and symmetric. There is no peripheral edema. Chest x-ray is normal. What is the most appropriate next step in immediate management?
A) Barium esophagram
B) High-resolution CT scan of the chest
C) Stress echocardiography
D) Substitute clopidogrel for aspirin
E) Twice-daily proton pump inhibitor therapy
Correct Answer:
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