A 27-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-day history of fever and joint pains. He is being treated with cephalexin for a skin infection. His urine has turned darker. His temperature is 38.5° C (101.3° F) , blood pressure is 125/70 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 15/min. Examination shows a skin rash; examination otherwise shows no abnormalities. Urinalysis shows: 8 RBCs/HPF, 12 WBCs/HPF with white cell casts, eosinophiluria, and a mild degree of proteinuria. Laboratory studies show a BUN of 40 mg/dl and serum creatinine of 2.2 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Discontinue cephalexin
B) Start ampicillin and gentamicin
C) Start oral ciprofloxacin
D) Start intravenous steroids
E) Start oral steroids
Correct Answer:
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