A 68-year-old woman comes to the office due to gradually worsening shortness of breath. Over the past several months, she has bothersome dyspnea on exertion, now developing with even light housework. She also reports cough in the mornings that is productive of minimal white sputum. The patient has had no chest pain or fever. She smoked approximately 10 cigarettes daily from age 18 to 50. Blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 14/min. Oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. On physical examination, the patient is breathing comfortably without using accessory muscles of respiration. The trachea is central, and jugular venous pressure is normal. Lung auscultation reveals bilateral vesicular breath sounds with occasional rhonchi that clears after the patient is asked to cough. Heart sounds are normal. Chest x-ray reveals no abnormalities. Pulmonary function testing shows that FEV1 is 65% of predicted, and the FEV1/FVC ratio is 50%. These values are unchanged after administration of albuterol. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Inhaled muscarinic antagonist
B) Low dose inhaled corticosteroid
C) Oral leukotriene antagonist
D) Pulmonary rehabilitation
E) Short course of oral prednisone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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