A 20-year-old woman comes to the office due to headache, fatigue, malaise, myalgias, and fever. She has no known sick contacts. The patient recently returned from a summer internship as an arborist at a New Jersey nature preserve. She has a monogamous sexual relationship with her partner. Temperature is 37.9 C (100.2 F) , blood pressure is 124/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min. Oropharyngeal examination is normal, and no cervical lymphadenopathy is present. There is a 4-cm, flat, annular lesion on her right lower abdomen with no scaling, raised borders, induration, or purulence. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Biopsy of the rash
B) Borrelia burgdorferi serology
C) Monospot test
D) Oral doxycycline
E) Oral fluconazole
F) Reassurance and symptomatic care
G) Serum antinuclear antibodies
Correct Answer:
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