A 26-year-old man with a history of Crohn disease is being evaluated for initiation of anti-tumor necrosis factor therapy. The patient has had progressively severe ileocolitis despite taking glucocorticoids for several weeks. Interferon-gamma release assay is performed. During the test, the interferon-gamma level in the patient's blood sample is measured at baseline and after incubating the sample with control antigens and mycobacterial antigens. The results are as follows: HIV testing is negative. Which of the following best explains the results of this patient's interferon-gamma release assay?
A) Active tuberculosis
B) Bacille Calmette-Guérin vaccination
C) Concurrent inflammation
D) Latent tuberculosis
E) Medication effect
Correct Answer:
Verified
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