A 42-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to severe headache. Three hours ago, the patient suddenly began experiencing bilateral headache, which rapidly worsened in severity. She also has had neck pain and an episode of vomiting. The patient has had no prior headaches, and medical history is significant for hypertension. She works in a day care. Temperature is 38.3 C (100.9 F) , blood pressure is 154/92 mm Hg, and pulse is 102/min. Oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical examination, the patient appears in obvious discomfort and keeps her eyes closed. She follows simple instructions, and there is no focal weakness or numbness. Funduscopy shows no papilledema. There is increased resistance to passive neck flexion, and it also elicits pain. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) 100% oxygen inhalation
B) Cervical spine x-ray
C) CT scan of the brain
D) Lumbar puncture
E) Sumatriptan injection
Correct Answer:
Verified
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