A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to weakness and numbness in both arms and legs that has progressively worsened over the last 3 days. The patient has no fevers, headache, dizziness, chest pain, shortness of breath, or abdominal pain. She reports no trauma or recent procedures. The patient has no medical conditions and takes no medications. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 130/82 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 20/min. On examination, the patient has 4/5 strength in both upper and lower extremities. Sensation is decreased below the neck. MRI shows increased T2 signal in the cervical spinal cord without any mass lesions or compression. Intravenous administration of which of the following is the best next step in management?
A) Antibiotic therapy
B) Antifungal therapy
C) Antiviral therapy
D) Immunoglobulin
E) Corticosteroids
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q229: A 42-year-old woman is brought to the
Q230: A 26-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q231: A 15-year-old girl is brought to the
Q232: A 40-year-old woman is brought to the
Q233: A 3-year-old girl is brought to the
Q235: A 62-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q236: A 63-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q237: A 61-year-old farmer is brought to the
Q238: A 72-year-old woman with a past medical
Q239: A 78-year-old woman is brought to the
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents