A 58-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after an apparent suicide attempt. He was found lethargic by his wife, who also discovered a suicide note. The patient has a history of coronary artery disease and hypertension. His temperature is 37.7 C (100 F) , blood pressure is 76/40 mm Hg, pulse is 40/min, and respirations are 12/min. Examination shows diffuse bilateral wheezing. Extremities are cold and clammy. ECG shows profound sinus bradycardia with first-degree atrioventricular block. The patient is given intravenous fluids and atropine; however, his bradycardia and hypotension do not improve. In addition to ensuring adequate oxygenation, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Aminophylline
B) Digoxin-specific antibody
C) Dobutamine
D) Glucagon
E) Intravenous pacing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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