A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to chest pain and shortness of breath for 1 hour. Prior to the onset of symptoms, he was preparing steak on an indoor charcoal grill. He has never had similar symptoms before. He takes metformin for his diabetes. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg, pulse is 114/min, and respirations are 24/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. On examination, the patient is drowsy and confused but acknowledges chest discomfort. Pupils are mid-sized and reactive to light. The chest has bilateral crackles. Cardiovascular examination reveals a normal S1 and S2 and no murmur or gallop. Neurologic examination shows no localizing weakness. ECG reveals sinus tachycardia with T-wave inversion in anterior leads. Cardiac troponin I level is elevated. Venous lactate is elevated. Chest x-ray reveals bilateral infiltrates. Emergency cardiac catheterization shows no acute coronary occlusion. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A) Benzodiazepine therapy
B) Carboxyhemoglobin level
C) CT chest scan without contrast
D) CT pulmonary angiogram
E) Discontinue metformin and observe
F) Transesophageal echocardiogram
Correct Answer:
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