A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department following the sudden onset of excruciating left-sided chest pain. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg, pulse is 125/min and regular, and respirations are 20/min. The patient is anxious and agitated and is sweating profusely. Both pupils are dilated, and the nasal mucosa is atrophic. Heart sounds are regular with no murmurs or rubs. The lungs are clear on auscultation. An initial ECG shows ST-segment depression and T-wave inversion in leads V4-V6. The first set of cardiac enzymes, including CK-MB and troponin T, is normal. Chest x-ray reveals no acute abnormality. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Cardiac catheterization
B) Close observation
C) Intravenous diazepam
D) Intravenous metoprolol
E) Thrombolytic therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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