A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to joint pains that began about an hour after a scuba diving excursion and have been worsening over the past 12 hours. He describes significant pain in his shoulders and elbows that does not change with movement. The patient has no medical history and takes no medications. Blood pressure is 122/80 mm Hg, pulse is 104/min, and respirations are 20/min. Pulse oximetry is 97% on room air. The patient is alert and oriented but appears uncomfortable. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The joints are nontender with full range of motion. He has normal strength and sensation in the extremities. The patient is placed on 100% oxygen, and intravenous fluids are administered. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A) Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
B) Intravenous acetazolamide
C) Oral dexamethasone
D) Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin
E) Sublingual nifedipine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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