A 45-year-old man is brought to the hospital due to confusion. His family had last seen him at lunch a few hours ago, and he was normal at that time. The patient has a history of schizoaffective disorder, Tourette syndrome, and polysubstance use disorder. Temperature is 38.5 C (101.3 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min and regular, and respirations are 30/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Pupils are 3 mm and reactive to light. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Epigastric tenderness is present, but there is no rebound or rigidity. The patient is not oriented to place or person. Neurologic examination shows no focal deficits. Deep tendon reflexes are normal. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A) Carboxyhemoglobin
B) CT mesenteric angiogram
C) CT scan of the abdomen
D) Dantrolene
E) MRI of the brain
F) Naloxone
G) Serum salicylate level
Correct Answer:
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