A 56-year-old woman is brought to the hospital due to altered mental status after being found at home in a state of confusion by her husband. He reports that the patient has had headaches and intermittent vision changes for the past week. She has no other medical history. Temperature is 36.6 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 220/115 mm Hg (previously 100/66 mm Hg) , and pulse is 90/min. Oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. On examination, the patient is lethargic. Flexion of the neck does not elicit pain. The skin on the hands is shiny and thickened with multiple telangiectasias. The lungs are clear, and there is 1+ lower extremity edema to the shins. A noncontrast head CT scan is unremarkable. Laboratory results are as follows:
Urinalysis demonstrates 1+ proteinuria without bacteria or casts. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) ACE inhibitor
B) Beta blocker
C) Hemodialysis
D) Methylprednisolone
E) Transdermal clonidine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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