A 26-year-old woman comes to the office due to an intensely pruritic rash on her back that has been present for the past 24 hours. The rash developed shortly after the patient awoke from a nap and has been spreading. Other than the rash, she has no symptoms. The patient reports no changes in cosmetic products or detergents. She has not been ill recently and has never had a similar rash. The patient has no known chronic medical conditions and takes no medications or supplements. She is not sexually active, and her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. Vital signs are normal. Appearance of the skin on examination is shown in the exhibit.
Oropharyngeal and cardiopulmonary examinations reveal no abnormalities. Heart and lung sounds are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Administer epinephrine
B) Obtain serum IgE level
C) Obtain skin biopsy
D) Prescribe a high-potency topical corticosteroid
E) Prescribe an H1-receptor antagonist
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q440: A 73-year-old man with dementia is brought
Q441: A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0
Q442: A 56-year-old woman is brought to the
Q443: A 62-year-old woman comes to the office
Q444: A quality assurance committee is establishing best
Q446: A 37-year-old previously healthy man comes to
Q447: A 52-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q448: A 35-year-old woman comes to the office
Q449: A 65-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q450: A 75-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents