A 48-year-old man comes to the office due to nasal congestion and rhinorrhea. Three months ago, the patient developed symptoms of nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, cough, fatigue, and fever. He began using over-the-counter acetaminophen and nasal decongestant spray. The fever resolved and symptoms initially improved, but since then, the patient has had worsening nasal congestion and a decreased sense of smell despite continued medication use. He has no other chronic medical problems. He works at a print shop. He does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits. The tympanic membranes are clear with no middle ear effusion. Nasal examination shows swollen, beefy-red nasal turbinates obstructing the nasal airway. The oral cavity is clear; the tonsils are small and not inflamed. There is no cervical adenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's current condition?
A) Allergen avoidance
B) CT scan of the paranasal sinuses
C) Measurement of serum IgE concentration
D) Serum antineutrophil cytoplasmic autoantibody assay
E) Withdrawal of nasal decongestant
Correct Answer:
Verified
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