A 30-year-old man comes to the office due to a 3-month history of progressive left breast enlargement. He has had no breast pain or nipple discharge. The patient has a history of Klinefelter syndrome and takes testosterone replacement therapy. Vital signs are within normal limits. BMI is 30 kg/m2. Physical examination shows a 2.5-cm, nontender, firm subareolar mass on the left side. Right breast examination is normal. The testes are atrophic and body hair is sparse. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Begin antiestrogen therapy
B) Check serum FSH and LH levels
C) Increase testosterone dosage
D) Obtain breast imaging
E) Provide reassurance and advise weight loss
Correct Answer:
Verified
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