A 45-year-old man comes to the office for follow up of type 2 diabetes mellitus. Since his diagnosis 4 years ago, the patient has followed a low-fat diet and taken metformin and atorvastatin as prescribed. Ophthalmologic examination conducted a month ago revealed no evidence of diabetic retinopathy. Blood pressure is 119/76 mm Hg, pulse is 70/min, and BMI is 30 kg/m2. Heart rhythm is regular and without murmurs. Lungs sounds are normal. Foot examination shows normal pulses and intact sensation to vibration, pressure, and pinprick. Hemoglobin A1c is 7.0%, creatinine is 0.9 mg/dL, and urine albumin/creatinine ratio is 15 mg/g. What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Add clopidogrel
B) Add glyburide
C) Add lisinopril
D) Add metoprolol
E) No additional medications
Correct Answer:
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