A 65-year-old man comes to the office due to recurrent falls. For the last several months, the patient has had a sensation of imbalance that is worse at night but has no associated pain or motor weakness. Medical history is notable for type 2 diabetes mellitus diagnosed 20 years ago and hypertension diagnosed 10 years ago. The patient was found to have nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy at his last ophthalmologic visit. Current medications include insulin, metformin, rosuvastatin, and ramipril. He does not use tobacco but drinks 1 or 2 beers daily and, often, more on weekends. Physical examination shows decreased proprioception and vibration sense in the feet. Ankle jerk reflexes are absent. Finger-to-nose and heel-to-shin tests are normal, but the patient sways and tends to fall when his eyes are closed. Bilateral hammer toe deformities are present. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following processes is predominantly responsible for this patient's neurologic symptoms?
A) Axonopathy of large nerve fibers
B) Axonopathy of small nerve fibers
C) Degeneration of cerebellar hemispheres
D) Degeneration of lateral spinothalamic tract
E) Diffuse demyelination of nerve fibers of the lower extremities
Correct Answer:
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