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A 36-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office Due to Worsening

Question 565

Multiple Choice

A 36-year-old woman comes to the office due to worsening pelvic pressure over the last year.  The patient has had increasing pelvic pressure associated with a dull, aching pain.  She has also noticed increasing abdominal girth but has had no changes in appetite or bloody stool.  The patient is sexually active and has had deep pelvic pain with intercourse for the past few months.  She does not use contraception and has regular monthly menses with 7-8 days of bleeding with each cycle; she has no intermenstrual bleeding or spotting.  Family history is significant for 2 maternal aunts with ovarian cancer in their 50s but is otherwise noncontributory.  Vital signs are normal.  BMI is 26 kg/m2.  Examination shows an enlarged midline pelvic mass that extends to the umbilicus.  The mass is mobile and has several palpable anterior protuberances.  There is no fluid wave or tenderness to palpation.  Bowel sounds are normal.  Urine pregnancy test is negative.  Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?


A) Adenomyosis
B) Endometrial polyps
C) Endometriosis
D) Gestational trophoblastic disease
E) Leiomyomata uteri
F) Ovarian cancer

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