A 25-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 24 weeks gestation comes to the office due to diarrhea. The patient has intermittently loose stools 2-6 times a day. Bowel movements are always associated with lower abdominal cramps, which improve after defecation. Although the symptoms predate the pregnancy, they have worsened over the past few weeks. The patient denies constipation, fecal incontinence, hematochezia, melena, and vomiting. She has never experienced dysmenorrhea or painful intercourse. Her pregnancy has progressed without complication, and ultrasonography confirms that fetal size is appropriate for gestational age. Medical and family history are unremarkable, and the patient does not use tobacco or alcohol. Vital signs are within normal limits. Heart and lung sounds are normal. The abdomen is minimally tender to palpation in the bilateral lower quadrants without rebound or guarding. There is trace pitting edema in the bilateral lower extremities. Fecal occult blood testing is negative. Hemoglobin is 10.9 g/dL and mean corpuscular volume is 86 μm3. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is normal. Which of the following most likely explains this patient's symptoms?
A) Diverticulosis
B) Endometriosis
C) Inflammatory bowel disease
D) Irritable bowel syndrome
E) Pregnancy-related colonic changes
Correct Answer:
Verified
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