A 31-year-old woman comes to the office for follow up of an abnormal Pap test. Two weeks ago, the patient underwent her annual well-woman examination, and Pap testing revealed a high-grade squamous epithelial lesion. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no prior surgery. The patient smokes a half pack of cigarettes daily. She has been in a monogamous relationship with a female partner for the past 2 years. The patient has regular monthly menses, and her last menstrual period was a week ago. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 33 kg/m². Colposcopy reveals a nulliparous cervix with no raised or ulcerated lesions. The entire squamocolumnar junction cannot be visualized. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Endocervical curettage
B) Endometrial biopsy
C) Human papillomavirus testing in 5 years
D) Repeat Pap testing in 1 year
E) Transvaginal pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer:
Verified
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