A 46-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of heavy menstrual bleeding. The patient's menses previously occurred every 29 days and consisted of 4 days of moderate bleeding. However, for the past year her menses have occured every 27 days and have become increasingly heavy, consisting of 5 days of heavy bleeding. During the first 2 days of her menstrual period, the patient changes her tampon every 1-2 hours and often soaks through her clothes. Her menses have also become increasingly painful and unrelieved by ibuprofen, and she now has constant, dull pelvic pain between menses. The patient has had 3 cesarean deliveries and a bilateral tubal ligation. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and pulse is 92/min. BMI is 28 kg/m2. Bimanual examination reveals a soft, tender, globular uterus that measures 11 weeks in size. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Hemoglobin is 9.8 g/dL and platelets are 180,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Adenomyosis
B) Endometrial hyperplasia
C) Endometriosis
D) Gestational trophoblastic disease
E) Menopause
F) Uterine leiomyoma
Correct Answer:
Verified
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