A 58-year-old woman comes to the office for her annual examination. The patient is feeling well. She reports 3 days of light vaginal spotting 2 months ago but has had no other episodes. The patient previously had not had a menstrual period for over a year. Her medical history includes symptomatic uterine fibroids, which were controlled with oral contraceptive pills until her early 50s. She has no other chronic medical conditions, and her only surgeries were 2 cesarean deliveries. The patient is current on her cervical cancer screening and has had no abnormal tests. Vital signs are normal, and BMI is 31 kg/m2. On speculum examination, there is no blood at the cervical os, and the cervix has no masses or areas of friability. The vagina appears pale and has minimal rugation. On bimanual examination, the uterus has multiple nontender masses consistent with fibroids. There are no areas of nodularity or palpable adnexal masses. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Measure a serum FSH level
B) Perform an endometrial biopsy
C) Place a progestin-containing intrauterine device
D) Prescribe a progesterone withdrawal test
E) Reassure the patient that bleeding is likely due to fibroids
Correct Answer:
Verified
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