A 36-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, comes to the office due to 2 days of right breast pain. She has also had fever, chills, muscle aches, and fatigue. The patient had a spontaneous vaginal delivery 6 weeks ago and has been breastfeeding her infant. Her husband has been feeding their baby pumped breast milk so that she can rest at night. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes a daily multivitamin. Her mother was diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer at age 55. Temperature is 38.8 C (101.8 F) , blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min. Physical examination shows a 5-cm area of erythema, induration, and tenderness at the upper outer quadrant of the right breast as well as right axillary lymphadenopathy. There is no fluctuance. The left breast has no abnormalities. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Discontinue breastfeeding and prescribe antibiotic therapy
B) Order breast ultrasound and mammography
C) Order mammography and core needle biopsy
D) Perform incision and drainage and prescribe antibiotic therapy
E) Prescribe antibiotic therapy and continue breastfeeding
F) Recommend nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories and warm compresses only
Correct Answer:
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