A 39-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0 aborta 1, comes to the office for follow-up after an abnormal Pap test that showed atypical glandular cells. Two years ago, the patient had a first-trimester spontaneous abortion after conceiving via ovulation induction. Since then, she has had menses every 2-3 months with frequent intermenstrual spotting. The patient is not using contraception because she is trying to conceive. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 41 kg/m2. Physical examination shows dark, velvety lesions on her neck folds and axilla. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Colposcopy and endocervical curettage are adequate and benign. Endometrial biopsy shows atypical endometrial hyperplasia. This patient's biopsy results are most closely associated with which of the following?
A) Chronic human papillomavirus infection
B) In utero diethylstilbestrol exposure
C) Malignant transformation of a leiomyoma
D) Proliferation of persistent trophoblastic tissue
E) Unopposed estrogen exposure
Correct Answer:
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