A 32-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3, comes to the office due to abnormal uterine bleeding. Menarche was at age 13, and her menstrual cycles were monthly until a year ago. The patient then began to have irregular menses that occurred every 45-60 days with heavy bleeding and passage of clots but no cramping. She has not had a menstrual period for the last 4 months. The patient has no hot flushes, acne, or abnormal hair growth. She takes levothyroxine for hypothyroidism and her only surgery was a tubal ligation after her last delivery. Height is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) and weight is 120.2 kg (265 lb) . Speculum examination is normal and bimanual examination is limited by body habitus. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Adenomyosis
B) Anovulation
C) Endometrial polyp
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Primary ovarian insufficiency
F) Uterine leiomyoma
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q541: A 41-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q542: A 31-year-old woman comes to the office
Q543: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q544: A 15-year-old girl is brought to the
Q545: A 19-year-old woman comes to the office
Q547: A 36-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q548: A 39-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0
Q549: A 25-year-old woman comes to the office
Q550: A 58-year-old woman comes to the office
Q551: A 45-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents