A 41-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office to discuss possible contraceptive options. She was recently diagnosed with hypertension and started on an ACE inhibitor. While discussing the medication, the patient was counseled on the risk of ACE inhibitors in pregnancy and the need for reliable contraception. She has not been on contraception for the past year because she was breastfeeding up until a month ago. Her husband does not want any more children, but the patient is unsure about future pregnancy. She has no other chronic medical conditions and takes no other daily medications. Her menses are monthly with 4 days of light bleeding and mild cramping on the first day. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 122/78 mm Hg and pulse is 70/min. BMI is 19 kg/m². On pelvic examination, the cervix is multiparous and has no visible lesions. The uterus is mobile and nontender. Which of the following is the most appropriate contraceptive option for this patient?
A) Bilateral tubal ligation
B) Combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives
C) Copper-containing intrauterine device
D) Estrogen-progestin vaginal ring
E) Vasectomy in husband
Correct Answer:
Verified
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