A 31-year-old woman comes to the office for follow-up of a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion found on a recent Pap test. A Pap test 6 years ago was normal, and the patient did not receive screening in the interim. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago, with menses occurring every 28 days and lasting 4 days. The patient is sexually active with her husband and takes an oral contraceptive. She became sexually active at age 14 and has had 7 sexual partners. The patient had a full-term vaginal delivery at age 20. She has a history of genital herpes, and the last outbreak was several months ago. The patient has no other medical issues or previous surgeries. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and pulse is 72/min. BMI is 24 kg/m2. A colposcopic examination is performed and a biopsy is taken. Pathology report of the biopsy shows cervical intraepithelial neoplasia grade 3. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Cervical conization
B) Human papillomavirus co-testing
C) Hysterectomy
D) Repeat colposcopy in 6 months
E) Repeat Pap test in 12 months
Correct Answer:
Verified
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