A 47-year-old man comes to the office in mid-January due to persistent high-grade fever, headache, and severe myalgias that began abruptly 4 days ago. The patient also has sore throat, nonproductive cough, and mild nasal congestion but no shortness of breath or chest pain. It has been >5 years since his last appointment, and he is not up to date on health maintenance or immunizations. The patient has no chronic medical problems, takes no medications, and has no known drug allergies. Temperature is 38.5 C (101.3 F) , blood pressure is 135/80 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 16/min. Oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical examination shows a mildly erythematous oropharynx with normal tonsils. No significant cervical lymphadenopathy is present. Breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally with no dullness to percussion or egophony. Heart sounds are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer influenza vaccination
B) Perform a rapid streptococcal antigen test
C) Prescribe azithromycin
D) Prescribe oseltamivir
E) Recommend symptomatic treatment
Correct Answer:
Verified
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