A 34-year-old woman comes to the office to discuss the results of a recent CT scan. The patient was in a motor vehicle collision last week and underwent a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis for possible intraabdominal trauma. The CT scan showed a markedly enlarged uterus with multiple intramural and pedunculated leiomyomata that did not compress the ureters or surrounding bowel. The patient has a monthly menstrual period with 4 days of light bleeding. She typically has abdominal cramping on the first day of her menstrual period, but usually does not require pain medication. The patient has no urinary frequency, urgency, chronic pelvic pain, or changes in bowel habits. She has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications. The patient is in a monogamous, same-sex relationship and has no pain with intercourse. Vital signs are normal, and BMI is 23 kg/m2. An irregularly enlarged mass is palpated in the lower abdomen, consistent with uterine leiomyomata. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Combination oral contraceptive pills
B) GnRH agonist therapy
C) Observation and reassurance only
D) Progestin-containing intrauterine device
E) Tranexamic acid
Correct Answer:
Verified
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