A 50-year-old man comes to the office for a follow-up visit. He has essential hypertension that was diagnosed a year ago. Laboratory results at that time for complete blood cell count, chemistry panel, and urinalysis were normal. At his last office visit 4 weeks ago, the patient's blood pressure was 144/92 mm Hg. He exercises regularly and has been compliant with a low-salt diet. Current medications include a thiazide diuretic and an ACE inhibitor. He quit smoking 2 years ago after a 25-pack-year history. The patient drinks 3 or 4 glasses of wine every day and 6-8 beers on weekend nights with his friends. He does not use illicit drugs. His father died following a stroke at age 60. Today, the patient's blood pressure is 143/88 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. The rest of his physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's hypertension?
A) Counsel for reduction in alcohol intake
B) Increase the dose of thiazide diuretic
C) Obtain a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio
D) Obtain a renal vascular sonogram
E) Start a beta blocker
Correct Answer:
Verified
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