A 72-year-old man comes to the office for a health maintenance examination. The patient feels well and does not report any symptoms, aside from occasional pain in his knees. Medical history is significant for hypertension and osteoarthritis, for which he takes hydrochlorothiazide, lisinopril, and as-needed acetaminophen. The patient has a 30-pack-year smoking history but quit 15 years ago. He does not use alcohol. He is a retired plumber and lives with his wife in a retirement community. During the visit, the patient reveals that a friend recently had an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair and inquires whether he should be screened for the same disorder. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) No further testing required
B) Obtain a CT scan of the abdomen
C) Obtain an abdominal ultrasound
D) Obtain an echocardiogram
E) Obtain an MRI of the abdomen
Correct Answer:
Verified
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