A 34-year-old woman comes to the office for a follow-up blood pressure check. Over the last 12 months, the patient's blood pressure readings have ranged from 145/90 to 150/95 mm Hg. Her blood pressure was measured during a health fair 2 weeks ago and it was 145/90 mm Hg. The patient feels well, has no other medical conditions, and has never been pregnant. Medications include a combination oral contraceptive for the past 5 years and, occasionally, acetaminophen for relief of tension headaches. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. There is no family history of hypertension, stroke, deep venous thrombosis, or heart attack. Blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg and pulse is 80/min. BMI is 22 kg/m2. Physical examination and ECG are normal. Six months ago, the patient's total cholesterol level was 170 mg/dL. Complete blood count, urinalysis, and basic metabolic panel are unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's hypertension?
A) Initiate a low-dose thiazide diuretic
B) Perform a CT angiogram of the abdomen
C) Prescribe an alternate form of contraception
D) Reassure the patient; no intervention is required
E) Recommend a diet and exercise regimen
Correct Answer:
Verified
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