A 38-year-old woman comes to the office due to left knee swelling for the past 3 weeks. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and recently started an exercise program consisting of aerobics and running to lose weight and improve glycemic control. She reports no falls or trauma. BMI is 35 kg/m2. On examination, the knees are not red or warm and demonstrate full range of motion. There is a 4-cm area of swelling in the anteromedial knee region 3 cm below the joint line. The swollen area is mildly tender on palpation. There is no joint line tenderness. A left knee x-ray reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's condition?
A) Diagnostic aspiration of the swollen area
B) Immobilization with a rigid knee brace
C) MRI evaluation of the knee
D) Quadriceps and hamstring muscle exercises
E) Serum inflammatory marker testing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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