A 42-year-old woman is evaluated for depression and poor sleep. She also has mild headaches and muscle weakness. The review of hospital records indicates emergency department visits for anxiety and kidney stones. The patient is a lifetime nonsmoker and does not use illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 160/105 mm Hg and pulse is 85/min. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following best explains this patient's hypertension?
A) Amphetamine abuse
B) Cushing syndrome
C) Hyperparathyroidism
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Primary hyperaldosteronism
F) Renal artery stenosis
G) Renal parenchymal disease
Correct Answer:
Verified
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