A 68-year-old man comes to the office due to 2 weeks of worsening fatigue and exertional dyspnea. The patient was diagnosed with early-stage leukemia a year ago but has not required treatment because he has not had significant symptoms. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows generalized lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's anemia?
A) Cytokine-mediated iron dysregulation
B) Folate consumption by leukemic cells
C) Immune-mediated hemolysis
D) Leukemic bone marrow infiltration
E) Selective suppression of erythroid precursors
Correct Answer:
Verified
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