A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with her boyfriend for evaluation of diarrhea for the past 3 weeks. The patient works as a schoolteacher and says, "There was a stomach bug going around recently, but no one else has had symptoms for this long." She reports voluminous and watery bowel movements that occur 10-12 times a day. She feels fatigued and weak and states that her sleep has been disrupted a few times due to nocturnal bowel movements. The patient has no abdominal pain, melena, hematochezia, vomiting, or unexplained weight changes. Her boyfriend reports that she had a similar episode of diarrhea 2 months ago; laboratory evaluation and colonoscopy showed no abnormalities, and the patient's symptoms resolved a few days later. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min. There are no orthostatic changes. Mucous membranes are moist, and capillary refill is normal. Abdominal examination shows mild tenderness to palpation in all 4 quadrants, with no rebound tenderness, guarding, or rigidity. Complete blood count, serum chemistry, liver function tests, and urinalysis are normal. HIV testing is negative. Fecal occult blood is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Assay for tissue transglutaminase IgA antibodies
B) CT scan of the abdomen
C) Lactose hydrogen breath test
D) Measurement of stool osmolality
E) Norovirus stool PCR testing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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