A 61-year-old woman comes to the office due to low back pain for the past 2 weeks. The patient has a constant, dull, aching pain that is more pronounced at night and has awakened her from sleep on several occasions. She has had no trauma or previous back conditions and attributes the pain to prolonged bending over while gardening. There is no associated fever, chills, bowel or bladder incontinence, or lower extremity weakness or numbness. Medical history is notable for hypertension and early-stage breast cancer at age 55, which was treated with lumpectomy, radiation therapy, and hormonal therapy. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 134/86 mm Hg, pulse is 76/min, and respirations are 12/min. Head and neck, cardiac, lung, breast, and abdominal examinations show no abnormalities. Spinal examination shows no deformities or focal tenderness. Lower extremity motor strength and reflexes are normal and symmetric. Straight-leg raising test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Epidural corticosteroid injection
B) Lumbosacral spinal imaging
C) Opioid analgesic at bedtime
D) Supervised exercise program
E) Trial of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and follow-up
Correct Answer:
Verified
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