A 62-year-old man comes to the office due to an abnormal chest x-ray. Two weeks ago, the patient was seen at an emergency department after a motor vehicle collision. Evaluation showed no significant trauma, but a chest x-ray revealed enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes. The patient has had no fever, cough, or dyspnea but has had nonpainful nodules in his axillae for the past several months. Medical history includes hypertension, for which he takes chlorthalidone. He is lifelong nonsmoker and drinks alcohol occasionally. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals clear lungs and normal heart sounds. Bilateral axillary and inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged and nontender. There is no rash or extremity edema. Blood cell counts and serum chemistry studies are within normal limits. A chest x-ray from a year ago also shows mediastinal lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's current condition?
A) Antinuclear antibody formation
B) BCL-2 gene overexpression
C) Disseminated fungal infection
D) Drug hypersensitivity reaction
E) Metastasis of a lung neoplasm
Correct Answer:
Verified
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