A 27-year-old man comes to the office due to recent onset of right knee pain. The pain developed 2 weeks ago while the patient was training for a triathlon. The pain is sharp and is on the medial side of the knee. It has been continuous but is exacerbated by exercise and improves partially with ice and rest. The patient has had no associated knee locking. He otherwise feels well and has no chronic medical conditions. Vital signs are normal. On examination, there is localized tenderness at the medial tibia below the knee joint with no associated redness or warmth. A valgus stress test has no effect on the pain. The gait is normal. X-ray of the knee and tibia reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's knee pain?
A) Medial collateral ligament sprain
B) Medial meniscus tear
C) Patellofemoral syndrome
D) Pes anserinus pain syndrome
E) Prepatellar bursitis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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