A 64-year-old man with a long history of uncontrolled hypertension is brought to the emergency department due to chest pain for the last 8 hours. ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm with ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads. Percutaneous coronary intervention, performed via right femoral artery access, demonstrates complete occlusion of the proximal left anterior descending artery. Stenting is performed, and appropriate medical therapy is initiated. Six days later, the patient develops sudden onset of severe left leg pain. On examination, the left lower leg is cold and mottled in appearance, without swelling. The femoral pulses are palpable and symmetric; the pedal pulses are present on the right and absent on the left. Vascular surgery is consulted. Which of the following should also be considered in this patient?
A) D-dimer assay
B) Echocardiography
C) Lower extremity venous Doppler study
D) Ultrasound of the right groin
E) Ventilation-perfusion scan
Correct Answer:
Verified
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