A 38-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of bilateral progressive hand pain with intermittent swelling over the past 6 months. The patient has no other symptoms or history of trauma or family history of arthropathy. Medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, for which he takes metformin. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 24 kg/m2. Examination reveals mild swelling and tenderness over the second and third metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints bilaterally. There is no muscle weakness. X-ray reveals joint space narrowing and chondrocalcinosis involving the second MCP joints with osteophyte formation at the second and third metacarpal heads. Serum alanine and aspartate aminotransferases are elevated. Which of the following therapies would be of most benefit to this patient?
A) Etanercept
B) Methotrexate
C) Phlebotomy
D) Prednisone
Correct Answer:
Verified
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