A 60-year-old man comes to the physician due to nausea and abdominal pain. He had a coronary angiogram and stent placement for chest pain 5 days ago and was discharged home the day after the procedure. His other medical problems include hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, peripheral artery disease, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Physical examination shows painless, purple mottling of the skin of both feet. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's findings?
A) Cholesterol emboli
B) Contrast nephropathy
C) Crescentic glomerulonephritis
D) Diabetic nephropathy
E) Obstructive uropathy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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